Home Forums All Things Catholic Jews first then Greeks?

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    I don’t know if anyone’s ever caught this before, but what do you make of this passage:

    [quote:2di0ib37]It is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: for Jew [i:2di0ib37]first[/i:2di0ib37], and then Greek.[/quote:2di0ib37]

    I added the emphasis because that is how the passage is coming off to me.
    Now, how am I supposed to take this in context with:

    [quote:2di0ib37]For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, slaves or free persons, and we were all given to drink of one Spirit.[/quote:2di0ib37]

    <img decoding=” title=”Confused” />


    The Gospel was preached to the Jew first, and then the Greek (gentile).


    Ok…but why? Maybe you could expound on that a little more.


    Why? Because the Messiah was promised to the Jews, the Chosen People. After that, God showed that Gentile and Jew both belong to the Lord.


    You know, I think you make a good point. That sounds like a good way that those things would fit together. I understood what you were trying to say when you initially replied, but I just wanted to see if you could offer more of an explanation. <img decoding=” title=”Smile” />


    I like to say things without saying them.


    I’ve noticed. <img decoding=” title=”Wink” />

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