- February 18, 2004 at 3:20 pm #672
I don’t know if anyone’s ever caught this before, but what do you make of this passage:
[quote:2di0ib37]It is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: for Jew [i:2di0ib37]first[/i:2di0ib37], and then Greek.[/quote:2di0ib37]
I added the emphasis because that is how the passage is coming off to me.
Now, how am I supposed to take this in context with:
[quote:2di0ib37]For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, slaves or free persons, and we were all given to drink of one Spirit.[/quote:2di0ib37]
” title=”Confused” />February 20, 2004 at 4:33 am #2462
The Gospel was preached to the Jew first, and then the Greek (gentile).February 21, 2004 at 6:21 am #2471
Ok…but why? Maybe you could expound on that a little more.February 21, 2004 at 10:06 pm #2481
Why? Because the Messiah was promised to the Jews, the Chosen People. After that, God showed that Gentile and Jew both belong to the Lord.February 22, 2004 at 3:48 am #2484
You know, I think you make a good point. That sounds like a good way that those things would fit together. I understood what you were trying to say when you initially replied, but I just wanted to see if you could offer more of an explanation. ” title=”Smile” />February 22, 2004 at 3:31 pm #2486
I like to say things without saying them.February 22, 2004 at 5:05 pm #2488
I’ve noticed. ” title=”Wink” />
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