Home › Forums › All Things Catholic › Jews first then Greeks?

Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 18, 2004 at 3:20 pm #672
    About Catholics Team
    Keymaster

    I don’t know if anyone’s ever caught this before, but what do you make of this passage:

    [quote:2di0ib37]It is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: for Jew [i:2di0ib37]first[/i:2di0ib37], and then Greek.[/quote:2di0ib37]

    I added the emphasis because that is how the passage is coming off to me.
    Now, how am I supposed to take this in context with:

    [quote:2di0ib37]For in one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, slaves or free persons, and we were all given to drink of one Spirit.[/quote:2di0ib37]

    <img decoding=” title=”Confused” />

    February 20, 2004 at 4:33 am #2462
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    The Gospel was preached to the Jew first, and then the Greek (gentile).

    February 21, 2004 at 6:21 am #2471
    About Catholics Team
    Keymaster

    Ok…but why? Maybe you could expound on that a little more.

    February 21, 2004 at 10:06 pm #2481
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Why? Because the Messiah was promised to the Jews, the Chosen People. After that, God showed that Gentile and Jew both belong to the Lord.

    February 22, 2004 at 3:48 am #2484
    About Catholics Team
    Keymaster

    You know, I think you make a good point. That sounds like a good way that those things would fit together. I understood what you were trying to say when you initially replied, but I just wanted to see if you could offer more of an explanation. <img decoding=” title=”Smile” />

    February 22, 2004 at 3:31 pm #2486
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    I like to say things without saying them.

    February 22, 2004 at 5:05 pm #2488
    About Catholics Team
    Keymaster

    I’ve noticed. <img decoding=” title=”Wink” />

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.