[quote:1vptohp7]James 2:24 doesn’t because just as Ephesians 2:10 follows the belief, so does our works [b:1vptohp7][u:1vptohp7]follow the belief [/u:1vptohp7][/b:1vptohp7]in Jesus and His Finished work at Calvary.[/quote:1vptohp7]
If you will read James 2 again, you will notice that he does not say works only follow belief but that [u:1vptohp7]we are justified[/u:1vptohp7] by our works and [b:1vptohp7]not[/b:1vptohp7] by faith alone.
[quote:1vptohp7]The Jewish law is what they lived before but whatelse could he have said? He never specified the Jewish Law- that is what your Catholic people would have us believe, but that isn’t what Paul says is it? The Bible simply says “by [u:1vptohp7][b:1vptohp7]the[/b:1vptohp7][/u:1vptohp7] law, no one will be saved” [/quote:1vptohp7][/quote]
Ron, you are belying an ignorance of Scripture. Catholic, Orthodox, Protestant … it makes no difference, all Biblical scholars acknowledge the plain fact that St. Paul is addressing Jewish law (Levirite, Mosaic, etc).
For explicit proof of such, just look at Hebrew 7:11-12:
If, then, perfection came through the [u:1vptohp7]levitical priesthood[/u:1vptohp7], on the basis of which the people [u:1vptohp7]received the law[/u:1vptohp7], what need would there still have been for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not reckoned according to the order of Aaron? When there is a change of priesthood, there is necessarily [u:1vptohp7]a change of law as well[/u:1vptohp7].