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Resurrecting this thread
John 3:5:

“Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and [of] the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” [KJ]

The author states that “This clearly refers to baptism”.

I don’t understand the scripture in that way – to me, clearly this refers to birth and not “Infant Baptism”, for all are borne of water, but not all are of spirit.

I have heard this many times. If it is referring to the amniotic fluid, then Jesus’ words would have no meaning whatsoever and everybody from the cannibals in New Guinea to the natives in the Amazon would automatically be considered “born again” since I don’t know of any case where a mother carried a baby in her womb and there was no “water”.

The thing is that in the early days of the Church, infant baptism was the norm. No need here to quote the ECF’s as there are tons of quotes. But no where do we find the Church condemning infant baptism. The only question was as to how early the newborn should be baptized. Also in the bible it speaks about “all in the household” being baptized and never does it state “except infants” and it would be ludicrous to say that simply because the words “Baptize infants” does not appear in the bible, that “all in household” didn’t include them. Remember back then, more than one family lived in a household and they sure didn’t practice the one household one child policy.