I’m not trying to be a heretic, but I just want to raise some discussion. ” title=”Wink” />
So, what [i:25c4w7dc]is[/i:25c4w7dc] the origin of papal infallibilty?
I know people like to quote Matthew 16:13-19 as proof, but let’s take a look at that. What does it really mean to have the power of the keys? What about the power to bind and loose which was later given to all apostles [Cf. Mt 18:18]?
What exactly is the precedent for papal infallibility?
The power of the keys is a symbol of authority and it is a binding authority, but how does infallibility come from that? I take it must be when using the authority of the keys.
I know there’s 3 or 4 conditions for an infallible statement.
Also, what was the historical situation at the time? Why was it necessary that the Church make such a proclamation?