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I’m not trying to be a heretic, but I just want to raise some discussion.
” title=”Wink” />So, what [i:25c4w7dc]is[/i:25c4w7dc] the origin of papal infallibilty?
I know people like to quote Matthew 16:13-19 as proof, but let’s take a look at that. What does it really mean to have the power of the keys? What about the power to bind and loose which was later given to all apostles [Cf. Mt 18:18]?
What exactly is the precedent for papal infallibility?
The Keys of Heaven are a symbol of authority drawn from Isaiah.
Papal infallibility developed from a number of observations, such as the keys, Peter as the rock, and generally just the authority of the Pope.
The power of the keys is a symbol of authority and it is a binding authority, but how does infallibility come from that? I take it must be when using the authority of the keys.
I know there’s 3 or 4 conditions for an infallible statement.
Also, what was the historical situation at the time? Why was it necessary that the Church make such a proclamation?
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