Ok, so what I am trying to emphasize is that Jesus died circa 30 AD, Paul wrote 30+/- years post Jesus’ death (60 AD) and the Jews set their canon 90 AD.

My point is that Paul in his letter to the Romans is not referring to an action the Jews would do 30 years later. The Christian church had already been established for roughly [b:2hgfxgnj]60 years[/b:2hgfxgnj] before the Jews set their canon. I think it is fair to say that by that time the laws the Jews made were not binding on Christians hence [b:2hgfxgnj]it does not matter what[/b:2hgfxgnj] books [b:2hgfxgnj]they say[/b:2hgfxgnj] comprise our Old Testament.

In short, I am saying you are stretching the passage in Romans a bit too far to “disprove” the use of the deuterocanonical books (which is what I am assuming you are trying to do).

The Christians were using the Greek versions of the text (Septuagint) when Paul wrote his letters and by the time the Jews settled upon the Masoritic texts.