Reply To: Homosexuality in the Bible

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#2489

Ok, here is verse 27 in the Greek:

[quote:21758xi0]ὁμοίως τε καὶ οἱ ἄρσενες ἀφέντες τὴν φυσικὴν χρῆσιν τῆς θηλείας ἐξεκαύθησαν ἐν τῇ ὀρέξει αὐτῶν εἰς ἀλλήλους, ἄρσενες ἐν ἄρσεσι τὴν ἀσχημοσύνην κατεργαζόμενοι καὶ τὴν ἀντιμισθίαν ἣν ἔδει τῆς πλάνης αὐτῶν ἐν ἑαυτοῖς ἀπολαμβάνοντες.[/quote:21758xi0]

The word you are talking about in that sentence is [b:21758xi0]χρῆσιν[/b:21758xi0] which is 3rd person, plural, present, active, indicative of χρἀομαι (1st person, singular, present, active, indicative is always how a verb is referenced in Greek lexica)

What I have found is that it means use or employ (especially for sexual purposes). In that sentence it literally says that the men gave up “natural use of the female” (τὴν φυσικὴν χρῆσιν ἐν τῇ).

So, just to support what you said and what Berrycat originally wrote, this passage does sound like it is referencing homosexuality or homosexual acts even though it does not flat out say “homosexuality” it might as well.